Alcohol Policy Report

The WEOC management deems it necessary to establish a set of stringent guidelines for serving alcohol at all of its events, since the company does not support completely banning alcohol consumption. A single alcohol management policy would help enforce a standard practice free of bias and conflicts. This would ensure that all individuals attending the event have a good time without any disturbance from individuals intoxicated with alcohol. Since the company hosts a fair share of late night parties, it would help prevent accidents resulting from drunken driving.Moreover, limiting alcohol consumption at events such training programs and conferences would ensure that business productivity is not affected due to overconsumption of alcohol. Enforcing a policy restricting alcohol consumption is essential to exercise control over large crowds at WEOC sponsored sports events. Since WEOC hosts events such as picnics involving attendees of all ages, it is the company’s responsibility to ensure that such events are suitable for all members of a family including children and elderly people.It is has been proven that individuals under the influence of alcohol may act in a boisterous manner and may even exhibit hostile tendencies. Avoiding individuals from alcohol overdose would help prevent damage to any property in the event premises. It is in the company’s best interest to follow this uniform policy would ensure that none of the employees suffer from alcohol intoxication and behave inappropriately towards a client.This policy is generally good for business and helps in building a positive brand image, since embarrassing scenarios leading to bad press could be avoided by maintaining a certain degree of civility and orderliness. All employees attending an event serving alcohol would be made aware of this policy and expected to conduct themselves in a socially acceptable manner. It should be duly noted that the following ten-point policy will followed in its en tirety by all employees under all circumstances at WEOC events.1) All WEOC events where alcohol is served shall be mandatorily required to use the services of a bartender certified through a state-recognized training program on responsible alcohol service. 2) All event attendees and other staff members with the exception of the certified bartender shall be prohibited from dispensing alcohol. 3) Underage drinkers will not be entertained and the bartender would have the authority to demand valid identification to authenticate one’s age (Grapevine Bar Catering 2007). 4) The bartender shall be given the authority to restrict the number of drinks served to all attendees to prevent alcohol intoxication.5) Bartenders will have the right to refuse serving certain drinks that can lead to quick and high levels of intoxication. 6) Any attendee of a WEOC event can be refused alcohol service at anytime if the bartender deems him/her unfit for consuming alcohol. 7) The bar shall be manned by the bartender at all times and alcohol containers shall remain behind the bar. 8) Attendees of the event shall not be allowed to carry alcohol out of the facility where the event is taking place. 9) The bartender shall stop serving drinks 30 minutes prior to the end of any WEOC event.10) Bartenders will be prohibited from accepting any form of tips, in order to avoid biased treatment. Reference: Grapevine Bar Catering. (2007). Alcohol Serving Policy. RossCo Innovations LLC. Retrieved 1August 2008, http://www. cateredsolution. com/servingPolicies. htm Retailers- Alcohol Service Policy. 2young2drink. Retrieved 1 August 2008, http://www. 2young2drink. com/retailers/alcohol_policy. asp RMIT University. (2001). RMIT – Health and Safety Manual. Retrieved 1 August 2008, http://mams. rmit. edu. au/9bxvxdqlamedz. pdf

DSC2006 Unofficial Mid-Term Mock Test Essay

DSC2006 Unofficial Mid-Term Mock Test 2010/11 Semester 2 Select the best answer 1. Business organizations consist of three major functions which, ideally: a) support one another b) are mutually exclusive c) exist independently of each other d) function independently of each other e) do not interface with each other 2. Revenue management is concerned with: a) a process designed to determine the best use of funds generated through sales. b) the use of marketing tools to increase revenue. c) the use of accounting tools to monitor cash flow. d) the use of pricing to increase the profit generated from a limited supply of supply chain assets. e) the appropriate use of operational tools to improve operational efficiency with a view to increasing revenue. 3. In order to make differential pricing effective, which of the following issues are to be dealt with? a) The firm must differentiate between the market segments and structure its pricing to make one segment pay more than the other. b) The firm must control demand such that the lower paying segment does not utilize the entire availability of the asset. c) The firm must secure enough capacity to meet demand from each segment. d) The firm should structure pricing according to different market segments and also control demand in such a way that the lower segment does not utilize the entire availability of the asset. e) The firm must secure enough capacity to meet demand of each segment and also control demand in such a way that the lower segment does not utilize the entire availability of the asset. 4. In order to differentiate between different market segments, the firm must: a) negotiate separately with different market segments that value product or service attributes differently. b) create barriers by identifying product or service attributes that the segments value differently. c) develop pricing structures based on the volume of various product or service attributes. d) eliminate barriers that identify product or service attributes that the segments value differently. e) create barriers by identifying product or service attributes that the segments value differently and also negotiate separately with different market segments. 5. Under which of the following condition(s) is the concept of revenue management is applicable? a) Capacity is perishable. b) The same unit of capacity can be used to deliver product or service to different submarkets having their own demand curves with different price elasticity. c) Using appropriate booking rules, a firm can create a fence among the relevant submarkets. d) Capacity is perishable, the same capacity can be used to different submarkets having their own demand curves with different price elasticity and also the firm can create a fence among the relevant submarkets. e) Capacity is perishable and the same capacity can be used to different submarkets having their own demand curves with different price elasticity 6. Throughput time cannot be reduced in a process by: a) Reducing the utilization of bottleneck equipment b) Performing activities using a serial approach c) Changing the sequence of activities d) Reducing interruptions e) All of the above are ways by which throughput time can be reduced 7. According to Little’s Law, which of the following ratios is used to find throughput time? a) Cycle time/Process time b) Throughput time/Process velocity c) Process velocity/Throughput time d) Work-in-Process/Throughput rate e) Value added time/Process velocity 8. A firm can participate in the quantity discount illustrated below when purchasing a product. It costs $20 to place an order each time. The holding cost rate is 20%. The annual demand for the product is 10,000 units. Lead time for the product is 1 month. Quantity 520 Cost $12 $10 $9 What is the minimum total cost that this firm can purchase and inventory this item while facing a quantity discount? a) 90,468 b) 90,853 c) 90,894 d) 100,000 e) 100,894 9. Which of the following determines the capacity of a production line? a) the takt time b) the throughput time c) the theoretical minimum number of work stations d) the efficiency 10. Which of the following types of manufacturing layout is considered a hybrid? a) Process layout b) Product layout c) Fixed-position layout d) Cellular layout 11. Compute the required cycle time for a process that operates 8 hours daily with a required output of 300 units per day. a) 0.625 minutes b) 1.6 minutes c) 37.5 minutes d) 0.027 minutes 12. Which of the following is NOT a mark of a good layout in manufacturing? a) Straight line flow patter (or adaption) b) Predictable production line c) Bottleneck operations d) Work stations close together e) Open plant floors (high visibility) 13. Revenue management is not especially useful where: a) Capacity is relatively fixed b) The market can be fairly clearly segmented c) The service cannot be sold in advance d) The service/product can be stored 14. Which is the correct order for process types starting with low volume/high variety and moving to high volume/low variety? a) Batch processes, project processes, job shop processes, mass processes, continuous processes b) Project processes, batch processes, mass processes, job shop processes, continuous processes c) Project processes, job shop processes, batch processes, mass processes, continuous processes d) Job shop processes, batch processes, mass processes, continuous processes, project processes 15. Which is the correct sequence in order of increasing process flexibility? a) Job shop / batch / project / continuous / product b) Project / job shop/ batch / continuous / product c) Job shop/ batch / project / product / continuous d) Project / job shop/ batch / product / continuous e) Continuous / product / batch / job shop/ project 16. Which of these statements is correct? The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ): a) Is a formula that calculates a realistic purchase price for an item b) Will depend on how many related parts are required in the same period c) Is used to calculate how much safety stock should be carried d) Determines the lowest order quantity by balancing the cost of ordering against the cost of holding stock e) Should be calculated once a year 17. Under the ABC system of inventory priorities a Class A item is: a) The 80% of high-value items that account for around 20% the total stock turnover value b) The 20% of high-value items that account for around 20% the total stock turnover value c) The 20% of high-value items that account for around 80% the total stock turnover value d) The 80% of high-value items that account for around 80% the total stock turnover value 18. The layout where the equipment, machinery, plant and people move as necessary is known as: a) Product layout b) Fixed-position layout c) Cell layout d) Process layout 19. A supermarket is usually positioned as: a) Cell layout b) Process layout c) Fixed-position layout d) Product layout 20. A self-service cafeteria is usually positioned as: a) Cell layout b) Product layout c) Fixed-position layout d) Process layout 21. Which of the following is usually considered a characteristic of a product or line layout? a) This layout can easily handle high volume but low variety b) This layout tends to be very flexible c) Transforming resources are costly to maintain d) This layout can easily handle high variety but low volume e) Transforming resources move to the work 22. A product layout: a) Groups transforming resources into dedicated cells b) Involves locating the transforming resources entirely for the convenience of the transformed resources c) Is appropriate for low volume operations d) Allows a wide variety of products to be manufactured on the same equipment e) Moves resources to the place where the operation is to be carried out 23. Cell layouts typically: a) Locate transforming resources entirely for the convenience of the transformed resources b) Cost more to run than other types of process layout c) Involve all the operations on a product being located adjacent to each other d) Are dominated by the transforming resources e) Are the most efficient form of process layout 24. Which of the following is the least likely decision to be made by Operations Managers? a) Designing and improving the jobs of the workforce b) Selecting the location and layout of a facility c) How much capacity is required to balance demand d) How to use quality techniques to reduce waste e) Deciding which market areas to manufacture products for 25. Which of the following would not normally be considered a general characteristic of a service? a) Many services involve both tangible and intangible outputs b) Production and consumption are simultaneous c) Production and consumption can always be spatially separated d) Low contact services can often be made more efficient than high contact services e) Production and sales cannot easily be separated functionally 26. Which of the following is not usually considered a characteristic of a fixed position layout? a) Fixed position layouts are often used for large or delicate products or services b) Transforming resources are grouped in cells c) The recipient of the process or the work being undertaken remain in the same place d) Fixed position layouts are able to offer high flexibility e) Transforming resources often move to the work 27. Operations management is: a) decision making involving the design, planning, and control of the processes that produce goods and services. b) decision making involving accounting, engineering, marketing, and strategy formulation that affect operations. c) decision making involving operations productivity and the reliability, durability, and manufacturability of products. d) decision making involving analyzing the competitive environment, appraising the organizations skills and resources, and examining the limitations of economics and technology on operations. 28. Inputs to the transformation process of operations include: a) Labour, capital, management, and material. b) Product design, materials planning, production planning, and product distribution. c) Strategic planning, marketing, engineering, and purchasing d) Steel, plastics, fibres, food crops, or other raw materials. 29. Some characteristics of services that differentiate them from goods (manufactured products) are: a) intangible, immediate consumption, high customer contact b) inventory, immediate consumption, options available c) delayed consumption, intangible, customer contact d) immediate consumption, options available, inventory 30. The concept of value-added means a) the customer must add value to a product by paying for it b) machines add value to the production process because of their low cost c) only service operations add value for the customer d) outputs of a process are worth more to customers than the sum of inputs 31. Computer-integrated manufacturing (CIM) differs from a flexible manufacturing system (FMS) in that: a) CIM usually includes one or more FMSs as components. b) An FMS does not use computers at all. c) CIM is only one component of an FMS. d) CIM is concerned only with data while FMS involves production processes. 32. A company is planning to produce a product that will compete in a high-volume market that is very price-competitive. What type of process would be most appropriate? a) project b) job shop c) batch d) continuous 33. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a product layout? a) standard product. b) high volume production. c) same sequence of operations for each unit. d) each order may require a unique sequence of operations. 34. The desired production rate for an assembly line is 120 units-per hour. What would be the cycle time? a) 30 seconds per unit b) 40 seconds per unit c) 0083 minutes per unit d) 2 minutes per unit 35. Which of the following is an advantage of a cellular layout? a) higher volume than an assembly line. b) greater f1exibility than a job shop. c) reduced material handling. d) use of more employees. 36. A company has a set of tasks that must be completed to assemble a product. The total time for these tasks is 96 minutes. The cycle time is 3 minutes and the company has found that 40 work stations are required to balance the line. What is the efficiency (or utilization) for this assembly line? a) 95% b) 90% c) 85% d) 80% 37. Which of the following IS NOT a use of inventory? a) Buffer against uncertainly b) Allow for large variations in production c) Decouple different processes d) Allow for smooth production 38. A retailer stocks a certain product that is sold at the rate of 10,000 units per year. Each replenishment order from the outside supplier costs $50. The price is $40 per unit and inventory carrying cost per year is 10% of unit price, how many units should be ordered each time to minimize total annual cost? a) 100 b) 250 c) 500 d) 1,000 39. Referring to the preceding problem, suppose the supplier requires that orders be placed for 2,000 units at a time. What would be the total annual variable cost of ordering and carrying inventory? a) $ 2,000 b) $ 2,500 c) $ 4,250 d) $ 8,000 40. A certain item is subject to quantity discounts as shown below: Quantity Price 1 – 49 50 – 999 1000 or more Purchased Per Unit $ 2.50 $ 2.00 $ 1.80 If 1,000 units are used per year and it costs $450 to place an order due to high shipping costs, how many should be ordered at a time to minimize variable costs if carrying cost per unit per year is 50% of unit value? a) 1000 b) 500 c) 100 d) 50 41. A company has 100 inventory items with total annual dollar usage of $3,000,000. Which of the following is most likely a C Inventory Item based on ABC analysis? a) b) c) d) Part # 1078 2365 1287 7864 Annual $ Usage $500,000 $250,000 $52,000 $1,000 42. A company manufactures repair parts. These parts are used at the rate of 5,000 units per year. It costs $100 every time more are produced. The cost of holding these parts in inventory is 20% of unit price, which is $25 per unit. The parts can be produced at the rate of 6,250 per year. How many units should be produced at a time to minimize total annual cost? a) 500 b) 1000 c) 1500 d) 2000

Developing Yourself and Others Essay

In order to carry development needs analysis on myself, I made use of customer feedback surveys that include customer complaints and compliments. This technique is representative of the entire customer opinion as KAYA Doncaster is the sole customer for which the team is contracted to. KAYA Doncaster has a procedure to ensure feedback to its service provider through completing surveys, complain or commendation. The survey is based on the performance of my team as a whole, providing the service. This reflects on my people management skills and allocation of tasks. To assess the developing needs of my team member, Y, I make use of one to one interview technique. This technique allows me to explore employees’ opinions, have an in-depth discussion. This technique is useful for understanding opinions and feelings and helpful in exploring a range of views. To identify any particular learning style for myself or my team member, I made use of the Learning Style questionnaire developed by Honey and Mumford. The learning styles identified by the questionnaire were based upon the work of Kolb. The outcome of the questionnaire has revealed that I share both pragmatism and reflective learning styles. My pragmatism approach makes me keen on trying out ideas, theories and techniques to see if they work in practice and also I positively search out new ideas and take the first opportunity to experiment with applications. I like to get on with things and act quickly on ideas which I feel more confident. I perceive problems and opportunities as challenges. Occasionally I tend to also take a reflective learning style where it makes me stand back to ponder experiences and observe them from many different perspectives. I like to collect data, both first hand and from others, and prefer to think about it thoroughly before coming to a conclusion. The outcome of the questionnaire has revealed that my team member has a more  activist learning style. Activists are those people who learn by doing. They need to get their hands dirty, to dive in with both feet first. They have an open-minded approach to learning, involving them fully and without bias in new experiences. The first learning option available for me is through analysis of previous experiences. Those past experiences can therefore cater to provide solution for any current or arising problems. My second option would be to shadow a successful colleague from a different site to enable me to see a first-hand operation within the organisation for relevant problems or situations. For Y, brainstorming about the task would generate new ideas and assigning these ideas hands-on would be the first learning/development option. The second option would be to get Y to be involved directly in group discussions so as to give the Opportunity to learn through actively expressing and learning from the group discussion Shadowing would require allocation to a different site and also it will be done during my normal working hours. Physical presence to a different site during my normal working hours can represent a barrier to the learning/development option. To overcome this, transport mode/cost and a dedicated day within my working agenda can be provided to make it achievable. Brainstorming and group discussion are time consuming and will be based on availability of staff time. To overcome this, brainstorming sessions or group discussions will have to be allocated on non-busy days. Monitoring my own development will be based on analysing performance pre and post shadowing. Any changes arising from the learning activity whilst shadowing will reflect on the best way of performing task and these changes can be looked into and adapt to other tasks in order to better them for future. Minutes from group discussions and brainstorming sessions for any new ideas generated should be kept. On future one to one interviews with the team member, the implementation of these ideas should be reflected upon to analyse their outcome. Successful outcome will indicate progression of the team member and unsatisfactory will enable to understand any barriers to implement them and support needed to overcome these barriers.

Discussion Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 250 words - 146

Discussion - Essay Example form of confessional poetry rich in poetic styles and brought out the sensational part of her life and the real life of many individuals (Burdescu, 2013). Although there are some ethical issues in Anne’s bibliography, Anne’s work can help many people who are in a similar state of depression and on the verge of committing suicide. In fact, the biography has increased the significance of her artwork and many people are interested in reading and understanding her work more than before. The description of Anne’s hard work as she writes a poem after another is quite encouraging to readers and other people as it stresses the value of hard work. Anne turned to writing to avoid killing herself something that is quite interesting to readers and other people in a similar situation. Engaging in something useful helps one to avoid engaging in certain vices, which has led to greater appreciation of her work. Despite the evils of her sexual and alcoholic life, her book won many praises and a national book award in the biography category as it depicted the actual life experiences that many people go through. Anne’s bibliography increased her creative endeavors and influenced many to read her poems appreciating the poetic

Myths of death, after life & eschatology Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words

Myths of death, after life & eschatology - Essay Example ‘Ngai’ is the name of the most High God in Kikuyu. This worship does not establish a connection with ancestral spirits. The Kikuyu have always believed in one God whom they have always regarded as creator and provider of all things, he who lives in the sky and temporal homes on earth and designated as mountains which serve as his resting place when he visits the Kikuyu people supposedly to lay his curse or confer his blessings to the people. (Mircea) Drawing from many African cultures, the Kikuyu believe in existence and life after death. Therefore when a person threatens to die, the community call upon the Ngai, and so it is believed widely among this community that it is only Ngai who decides whoever dies. At every occasion in kikuyu, including birth, marriage, initiation and death a prayer communication is established then between the victim and Ngai. Other studies have suggested that these four events in Kikuyu bear a lot of significance in Kikuyu culture, and as such during other normal happy times no such prayers are offered nor religious ceremonies conducted. Kikuyu believe in afterlife. Subsequently, it is also argued that the ancestors exist in the community’s descendants. Therefore it is a common cultural practice that children are then named after their grandparents, this assumes that once an someone has been named after an ancestor, then the ancestor exists with these people in their everyday activities, and also other consequences are experienced when naming of an ancestor has been forgotten and thus appears in manners that are not pleasantry. (Mircea) Mircea further says that besides believing in death, Kikuyus also believe in the existence of their ancestors, there are several cultural undertakings that they practice in order to appease the ancestors especially if ancestors have been ignored. In most occasions, they pour beer on the ground or food in attempts to appease the ancestors, practices that

Organizational culture is fundamentally about symbolic meaning and as Essay - 7

Organizational culture is fundamentally about symbolic meaning and as such cannot be managed. Discuss - Essay Example In each organisation, there exist patterns of symbols, beliefs, myths, rituals, and practices that have been developed over time. These, in turn, form general understandings among the organisation’s personnel as to what the organisation represents and how its affiliates should conduct themselves. Organisational culture refers to the behavioural norms as well as values of the members of the organisation. There are two basic kinds of values: the instrumental and the terminal. Terminal values have to do with the preferred effects or outcomes that workers endeavour to achieve. Instrumental values, on the other hand, refer to the esteemed types of behaviours. Organisational culture exists on two levels. The first level is in external expressions of the culture, which are observable and able to make some type of interpretation. The symbols of the cultures of any organisation are evident in communication patterns, the configuration of work spaces and the methods through which authori ty is expressed. Organisational cultures can also be observed during organisational ceremonies. The other level of organisational culture can be observed in the deeply held beliefs, values, attitudes, assumptions, and feelings that lie beneath the behaviour of personnel (Jaffe 2001). Assumptions as well as organisational principles at this stage are not so easy to discern, interpret and comprehend. It is only the level of culture that is in evidence that can be assessed or changed. This level is the one that is often at the centre management activity. The Significance of Organisational Culture Organisational culture is the bond that structures the different organisational settings and makes it possible for personnel to be able to draw meaning from their duties, and also work easily alongside people who have different values from them (Drummond 2000). Strong organisational cultures are those that are clearly ordered, and have personnel that have identical core values. These kinds of cultures usually flourish in military as well as religious organisations. Strong organisational cultures also encourage behavioural consistency by letting the workers know about exactly which behaviours they should adopt. On the negative side, strong organisational cultures can foster implicit control of workers and function as an alternative for formalisation. In Schein's view, organisational culture is a contributor to internal integration as well as the exterior adjustment of the organisation to its settings (Fineman, Sims and Gabriel 2005). For an organisation to be effective, any organisation’s strategies, culture, technology and environmental concerns have to be united to realise the organisation’s objectives. Usually, when managers or other high ranking personnel try to alter organisational cultures, the resultant changes are usually erratic and sometimes even objectionable. For instance, forced changes can make workers become cynical towards all change programs in general. This does not mean that managers should avoid even the suggestion of possible organisational cultural changes. However, they should be ready to allow workers to engender the necessary changes without being coerced (Clegg, Kornberger and Pitsis 2008). Organisational culture should be viewed as a framework for fostering the desired meanings. It is important for managers not to attempt to forcibly effect organisational cu

Presentation Essay Example | Topics and Well Written Essays - 500 words - 7

Presentation - Essay Example It is also important to note that daily life challenges and observations enabled data collection through observations. The sources show consistency in the evaluation of contributions of technological advancements to the livelihoods and environmental issues. In common, the sources highlight that since the advent of technology, individuals have progressed inventions and technologies in order to manipulate the world. Technology also assists people to meet daily needs. However, technology presents both adverse and good fortunes for environment and humans. First, fossil fuel and enhancement in technology has increased carbon dioxide emission into the atmosphere causing erosion of ozone and global warming (Johnson par. 2). Second, technology affects work life balance and administering responsibilities (Richardson par. 6). Third, technological innovations play a critical role in the degradation of world environment and the welfare of human life (Sean par. 3). Fourth, progressions in technology promote economic success at the expense of environmental sustainability (Oscar 1). Finally, the United Nations age ncy outlines that technology to create lifestyles that sustain the environment. Based on the information from the sources, I can make conclusions that environment, man, and technology depend on one another. Similarly, the environment comprises of scarce resources that man should exploit in a sustainable manner to achieve the comforts of life. Despite the anticipated opportunities, technology can harm both environment and human life if wrongly applied. For instance, technological advancements are the main causes of environmental challenges experienced in the contemporary world. However, my analysis of the whole research shows that technology has immense advantages to the environment and man. The success of the innovation changes depend on the appropriate